Could it be?

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Posted by Mike ( on November 04, 2002 at 08:34:41:

In Reply to: Re: Another vague question.... posted by Mike on November 01, 2002 at 21:03:37:

Could it be that, as in the Dispensation of Muhammad wherein Muhammad, in accordance with the wisdom inherent in the process of progressive revelation, outwardly permitted polygamy and, as in this Revelation wherein Baha'u'llah Himself outwardly permitted polygamy limiting the number of wives that a man could take to two with the knowledge that later, the time being ripe, Abdu'l-Baha would be in a position to explain the true meaning of this teaching; could it not also be, taking into consideration the ambiguity of the statements vis-a-vis marriage to unbelievers in the Kitab-i-Aqdas, that Baha'u'llahs real intention is that marriage to unbelievers should, in the fullness of time, become unlawful?

Just a thought...


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